Vindiciae legis, or, A vindication of the moral law and the covenants, from the…Vindiciae legis, or, A vindication of the morall law and the covenants, from the…

The 2d. Question is easily answered, How they are said to be ¹without a law; to wit, without a written law, as the Jews had; so that we may say, they had a law without a law; a law written, but not declared.

The 2d. Question is easily answered, How they are said to be ¹without a law; to wit, without a written law, as the Jewes had; so that we may say, they had a law without a law; a law written, but not declared.

1. 1How the Gentiles are said to be without a Law.

The 3d. Question, In what sense they are said to do the things of ¹the law, and that by nature. To do the things of the law is not meant universally of all the Heathens, for the Apostle showed how most of them lived in the Chapter before: nor secondly universally in regard of the matter contained in the law, but some external acts, as Aristides and Socrates, with others. And here it's disputed, Whether a mere Heathen can do any work morally good? But we answer, No: for every action ought to have a supernatural end, viz. the glory of God, which they did not aim at; therefore we do refuse that distinction of a moral good, ²and theological, because every moral good ought to be theological: they may do that good matter of the law, though not well. And as for the manner how, by nature; those Interpreters that understand this Text of Gentiles believers, say, Nature is not here opposed to Grace, but to the law written by Moses; and therefore make it nature enabled by grace: but this is showed to be improbable. By nature therefore we may understand that natural ³