A vindication of the Animadversions on Fiat lux

or since the ruin of the Greek or Latin Empire, and therein the Corruption of thei• Languages. I believe you will not find it above three or four thousand at the most, upon your next Calculation: though I can assure you an ingenuous Person told me, he thought from the manner of your speaking you might guess at some nine or ten. What then? Was the Bible say you put into other vulgar tongues when they ceased to be vulgar? Yes by some they were: Hierom translated it into the Dalmatian tongue: Ulphilus into the Gotish: Bede a great part of it into the Saxon, and the like no doubt was done by others. The Eastern Countries also, to whom the Greek was not so well known, had Translations of their own from the very beginning of their Christianity. And for the rest, shall the wretched negligence of men in times of confusion and ignorance, such as those were wherein the Greek and Latin tongues ceased to be vulgar, prescribe a Rule and Law unto us of practice in the worship of God, contrary to his own direction, the nature of the thing its self, and the example of all the Churches of Christ for five hundred years? ⟨p. 545⟩For besides that in the Empire it was always used, and read in the vulgar tongues, those Nations that knew not the two great Languages that were commonly spoken therein, from the time that they received the Christian faith, took care to have the Scriptures translated into their Own mother tongue. So Chrysostom tells us, that the Gospel of John, wherein occasionally he especially instanceth, was in his days translated into the Syrian, Egyptian, Indian, Persian and Ethiopian Languages. Hom. 1. in John. But you say, Did the Church either of the Hebrews or Christians, Greek or Latin, ever deliver it translated to the generality of the People, or use it in their Ser| vice, or command it so to be done, as a thing of General concernment; so far is it from that, that they would never permit it. But you do not sufficiently consider what you say. The Hebrew Church had no need so to do. God gave the Scripture unto it in their own mother tongue, and that only. And they had no reason to translate it out of their knowledge and understanding. The Greek Church had the New Testament in the same manner, and the Old they translated or delivered it so translated by others unto the generality of the people, and used it in their Service. The Latin Church did so also.

or since the ruine of the Greek or Latin Empire, and therein the Corruption of thei Languages. I believe you will not find it above three or four thousand at the most, upon your next Calculation: though I can assure you an ingenuous Person told me, he thought from the manner of your speaking you might guess at some nine or ten. What then? Was the Bible say you put into other vulgar tongues when they ceased to be vulgar? Yes by some they were: Hierom translated it into the Dalmatian tongue: Vlphilus into the Gotish: Beda a great part of it into the Saxon, and the like no doubt was done by others. The Eastern Countreys also, to whom the Greek was not so well known, had Translations of their own from the very beginning of their Christianity. And for the rest, shall the wretched negligence of men in times of confusion and ignorance, such as those were wherein the Greek and Latin tongues ceased to be vulgar, prescribe a Rule and Law unto us of practice in the worship of God, contrary to his own direction, the nature of the thing its self, and the example of all the Churches of Christ for five hundred years?