The great Christian doctrine of original sin defended

2. If there had been any thing like such an Use of the Words, Sin and Sinner, as our Author supposes, in the old Testament, 'tis evident that such as Use of them is quite alien from the Language of the New Testament. Where can an Instance be produced, of any thing like it, in any one Place, besides what is pretended in this? And particularly, Where else shall we find these Words & Phrases used in such a Sense, in any of this Apostle's Writings? We have enough of his Writings, by which to learn his Language and Way of speaking about Sin, Condemnation, Punishment, Death and Suffering. He wrote much more of the New Testament, than any other Person. He very often has Occasion to speak of Condemnation; but where does he express it by being made Sinners? Especially how far is he elsewhere from using such a Phrase, to signify a being condemned without Guilt, or any Imputation or Supposition of Guilt, or Atonement for Guilt? Vastly more still is it remote from his Language, so to use the Verb Sin, and to say, Man sinneth, or has sinned, tho' hereby meaning Nothing more nor less, than that he, by a judicial Act, is condemned, on the Foot of a Dispensation of Grace, to receive a great Favour! He abundantly uses the Words, Sin and Sinner; his Writings are full of such Terms: but where else does he use them in such a Sense? He has much Occasion in his Epistles to speak of Death, temporal and eternal; He has much Occasion to speak of ⟨p. 266⟩Suffering, of all Kinds, in this World, and the World to come: But where does he call those things Sin? and denominate innocent Men Sinners? or say, They have sinned, meaning that they are brought into a State of Suffering? If the Apostle, because he was a Jew, […] •o addicted to the Hebrew Idiom, as thus is one Paragraph to repeat this particular Hebraism, which, at most, it comparatively rare even in the old Testament, 'tis strange that never any thing like it should appear any where else in his Writings; and especially that he should never fa•l into such a Way of speaking in his Epistle to the Hebrews, written to Jews only, who were most used to the Hebrew Idiom.

2. If there had been any thing like such an Use of the Words, Sin and Sinner, as our Author supposes, in the old Testament, 'tis evident that such as Use of them is quite aliene from the Language of the New Testament. Where can an Instance be produced, of any thing like it, in any one Place, besides what is pretended in this? And particularly, Where else shall we find these Words & Phrases used in such a Sense, in any of this Apostle's Writings? We have enough of his Writings, by which to learn his Language and Way of speaking about Sin, Condemnation, Punishment, Death and Suffering. He wrote much more of the New Testament, than any other Person. He very often has Occasion to speak of Condemnation; but where does he express it by being made Sinners? Especially how far is he elsewhere from using such a Phrase, to signify a being condemned without Guilt, or any Imputation or Supposition of Guilt, or Atonement for Guilt? Vastly more still is it remote from his Language, so to use the Verb Sin, and to say, Man sinneth, or has sinned, tho' hereby meaning Nothing more nor less, than that he, by a judicial Act, is condemned, on the Foot of a Dispensation of Grace, to receive a great Favour! He abundantly uses the Words, Sin and Sinner; his Writings are full of such Terms: but where else does he use them in such a Sense? He has much Occasion in his Epistles to speak of Death, temporal and eternal; He has much Occasion to speak of